Marx's analysis of the workings/machinations of capitalism are pretty much accepted across the board - the question becomes, are the inevitable inequalities justifiable or acceptable ?
Marx said no - and, putting it simply, his solution was the public/common ownership of the means of production. This used to be enshrined in the Labour Party constitution until very recently. Much of the world adopts public ownership of the nations wealth - and it works admirably for them.
Of course, here in the UK (and the US) we are in the curious position of having a political ideology that finds it necessary to put into private ownership that which is profit making and which was previously held in public hands (ie. Royal Mail) - and on the other hand, to put into public ownership that which is loss making (eg. RBS).
In other words, the profits are privatised and the losses are nationalised. It absolutely stinks - and if you want to understand how this comes about you need an understanding of how capitalism works > Marx. Maybe have a look at
Piketty if you find the idea of reading Marx too much
On the other hand maybe you are one of those who believe 0.1% of the world's population owning as much wealth as the poorer 50% is an acceptable, albeit unfortunate, outcome of global capitalism.
Here, you don't work for HSBC do you ?