Wife nearly due to give birth

[SJH101]

My wife is 39 and a bit weeks pregnant, so any time soon she could give birth. I have followed all the necessary steps so that I am eligible for 2 weeks paternity leave.

The due date is 31st August, but just out of curiosity, when would my official 2 weeks start if she was to go into labour now?
And not give birth until say the due date or just before?

Would it start on the day the child is born or when I first take time off to go into hospital to be with my wife?

I asked my union rep the other day and he said that if she goes into labour before and doesn't give birth straight away, then come back into work, but there is no way I want to do that, and my wife doesn't want me to either. So would this mean my paternity leave starts when I first take time off to be at the hospital?

http://www.cwumid7.com/PDFs/Paternity%2 ... Policy.pdf" onclick="window.open(this.href);return false;

According to this my paternity leave starts when the child is born, regardless of when I go into hospital to be with my wife.

Thanks

[spen]

Not entirely sure but I would guess that it starts from your first day of paid absence

[TONY MELON]

It starts when the baby is born however if you take leave early
You can take it as unpaid leave or annual leave

[Postaltony]

I'm sure I've read some where that our HR colleagues get 4 weeks full paid leave. In fact it was a document dated 2011 and it was Royal Mail policy. If this is right then surely this breaches some part of the equality act. As we should not be treated any differently to anyone else in the Royal Mail Group.

Any clarification available on this?

[IcanthelpthewayIam]

It starts when the baby is born

Not quite correct from the GOV website
https://www.gov.uk/paternity-pay-leave/leave" onclick="window.open(this.href);return false;

Start and end dates

Leave can’t start before the birth. It must end within 56 days of the birth.

You must give your employer 28 days’ notice if you want to change your start date.

You don’t have to give a date when you want to take leave (eg 1 February). Instead you can give the general time (eg the day of the birth or 1 week after the birth).

I'm sure I've read some where that our HR colleagues get 4 weeks full paid leave. In fact it was a document dated 2011 and it was Royal Mail policy. If this is right then surely this breaches some part of the equality act. As we should not be treated any differently to anyone else in the Royal Mail Group.

What form of discrimination do you think that would be along the lines of? age, sex, racial?

Its not discrimination to give separate types of employees different terms and conditions, otherwise everyone from Director to Postie would have exactly the same terms and conditions