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Legality of vote

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aposter
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Legality of vote

Post by aposter »

Our office is currently about to implement the revision. I know the union are pushing for the 1 in 4 saturdays off and an increased ratio of full to p/t staff

The management has proposed 3 leave structures for the office, 3 weeks on 1 week off, 4 weeks on 1 week off, and 5 weeks on 1 week off.

In the case of both the 3 and 4 week options our office will lose a considerable proportion of full time staff, down from 50% to 32%, but the union are happy for the vote to go ahead on the basis (it seams) that RM want the revision in before the end of the financial year AND at minimum disruption, ie practically 0 planning as gone into the new rounds, which are just the old rounds under new names.

The vote is only open to union members, who will vote on which 'leave' structure the office adopts.

On this basis can anyone tell me the legality (maybe in terms of European rights?) of union members voting to the detriment of union and Non-unions members (ie they may be required to move xx miles in order to retain full time hours)

Secondly as the majority carry the vote, should they vote for a 1 in 4 structure they are forcing anyone wishing to remain at the office (F/T) to work a 52 hour week, is this legal.

Thanks :shock:
UnhappyGremlin
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Re: Legality of vote

Post by UnhappyGremlin »

As far as I'm aware you can insist on working no more than your contracted (39) hours, and cannot be forced to work past them. It's the law.

I'm sure it says as such in the 2010 BT agreement. If I find it and no one beats me to it, will post it later.
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UnhappyGremlin
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Re: Legality of vote

Post by UnhappyGremlin »

From 2010 Business Transformation

Attendance Patterns and Duty Structures

It is jointly recognised that the end product of duty revisions and their successful deployment are paramount to the success of this agreement, employee and customer satisfaction and the future success of Royal Mail. This will be achieved where duty structures and attendance patterns are innovative and meet the aspirations and needs of both employees and the company. Both parties accept that attendance patterns and duty structures must efficiently and cost effectively align hours to workload, meet the delivery specification and USO, and provide a real incentive for change. In addition to this both parties re-affirm their commitment to a maximum 5 day week attendance/duty pattern for all employees.

Whilst the emphasis will be on local parties to develop and agree duty structures and attendance patterns that meet the requirements above and remain consistent with all aspects of this agreement; a menu of options has been provided nationally to enable constructive, structured and progressive talks to take place locally that will assist in bringing this to fruition. Units are also encouraged to develop more innovative and imaginative attendance patterns fully utilising the available workload, and any options that deliver the requirements above and below.

Best practice in this area will be jointly discussed and shared at regional and national level and will be used as a source of information to assist others.
As part of the operational transformation the vast majority of full time delivery duties will start no later than 0700. The majority of delivery routes will be designed to start and finish at the workplace; however there will be some duties where it is more beneficial for both parties to agree alternative arrangements. In addition pouching off arrangements will remain where it is practical and efficient to do so. Employees who wish to retain their current contracted hours will have the option to do so, however all employees will need to recognise that in order to provide innovative attendance patterns and duty structures they will need to embrace change which may mean an alteration to attendance times.

Delivery spans will be a key component of delivery duty structures and a pragmatic and flexible approach to this consistent with the sections of this agreement covering spans and delivery methods will be essential in securing attendances which meet the aspirations of employees and provides a reliable and consistent service to customers in line with the new workplan detailed in the generic section of this agreement. In addition to normal/traditional delivery duty structures there is scope for securing full-time working through the effective use of technology (units with CSS machines) and different methods of delivery for example linking business and residential deliveries, the introduction of new products and services (particularly in the fulfilment market), as well as through cross functional working e.g. collections.

Hope this helps. :Very Happy
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aposter
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Re: Legality of vote

Post by aposter »

Probably not tbh, as that is an RM agreement which as we all know is as much use as Izal, and reading between the lines IF they stuck to it would probably just entail any dissenters being found a suitable position at another DO however many miles away that may be :sad:

Thanks for taking the time though :thumbup
eian687
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Re: Legality of vote

Post by eian687 »

join the union and get your voice heard....................you are happy for the union to get you pay rises
:crazy:
aposter
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Re: Legality of vote

Post by aposter »

eian687 wrote:join the union and get your voice heard....................you are happy for the union to get you pay rises
:crazy:
Who said I wasn't :roll: (wether I will still be at the end of this debacle remains to be seen) Doesn't mean I have to agree with a majority rule when it effects colleagues livelihoods and certainly morally if not legally I don't think it is something that should be voted on if that is the case.

At the end of the day if you effectively offer peeps 16 ~ 17 weeks leave at the expense of a couple of people having to move 10 miles down the road or to accept 'only' 12 ~ 13 weeks leave so everyone can remain, a lot will look after number 1 and take the leave offered.

Wether the guys being displaced are union members or not, how is it right? A) how can the union promote voting to displace/be detrimental to its own member, and B) how can it be legal to effectively sell votes (union dues payers) to a proportion of the office to vote wether colleagues who refuse to buy a vote (non members) should be moved??

PS what is this pay rise you speak of? Don't remember one of those for some years, certainly not in real terms in anycase.
TrueBlueTerrier
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Re: Legality of vote

Post by TrueBlueTerrier »

aposter wrote: On this basis can anyone tell me the legality (maybe in terms of European rights?) of union members voting to the detriment of union and Non-unions members (ie they may be required to move xx miles in order to retain full time hours)
Its entirely legal - part of your contract will mention "collective agreements" between the company and the Union.

The moral aspect, would I suggest, be exactly the same even if all workers voted whether in the Union or not. Perhaps even more so if the people who are not in the Union through conviction but cost, they I suggest are more likely to vote based on selfish reasons. I would also suggest that at least some Union members are more likely to vote based on their convictions of worker solidarity than non union members are.

One thing I must point out though is if the vote goes against your views then those who are "forced" to move should not be selected on whether they belong to the Union or not, in fact if they were, this is 1 reason I would strike for, and I hope most CWU colleagues would as well. The selection process should be fair and above board to everyone.
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aposter
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Re: Legality of vote

Post by aposter »

TrueBlueTerrier wrote:
aposter wrote: On this basis can anyone tell me the legality (maybe in terms of European rights?) of union members voting to the detriment of union and Non-unions members (ie they may be required to move xx miles in order to retain full time hours)
Its entirely legal - part of your contract will mention "collective agreements" between the company and the Union..
Not debating that, but collective agreement or not, I would be surprised if it didn't contravene any European directive/ human rights et al, mind you wgaf all for one and everyone for themselves, will just have to try and work my way up the union ladder, cushier than even RM management :whistle
TrueBlueTerrier
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Re: Legality of vote

Post by TrueBlueTerrier »

aposter wrote:
TrueBlueTerrier wrote:
aposter wrote: On this basis can anyone tell me the legality (maybe in terms of European rights?) of union members voting to the detriment of union and Non-unions members (ie they may be required to move xx miles in order to retain full time hours)
Its entirely legal - part of your contract will mention "collective agreements" between the company and the Union..
Not debating that, but collective agreement or not, I would be surprised if it didn't contravene any European directive/ human rights et al, mind you wgaf all for one and everyone for themselves, will just have to try and work my way up the union ladder, cushier than even RM management :whistle
Prepare to be surprised

http://www.thompsons.law.co.uk/ltext/l0560004.htm" onclick="window.open(this.href);return false;
The Advocate General's Opinion denied the existence of a fundamental trade union right to collective bargaining in EU law. To reach this conclusion meant that Jacobs had to dismiss ILO Conventions 87 and 98, which have been ratified by all the Member States of the EC, the Community Charter of Fundamental Social Rights of 1989, approved by all Member States, the Council of Europe's Social Charter of 1961 and the European Convention on Human Rights. In his view, none of these international instruments supported a fundamental right to collective bargaining in EU law.

Following from this denial of any right to collective bargaining, Jacobs asserted that collective agreements were merely "contracts", and as such had only limited immunity from EC competition rules, which impose justified limitations on collective agreements. Collective agreements are protected from EC competition law (enjoy "anti-trust" immunity) only in the case of: "collective agreements between management and labour concluded in good faith on core subjects of collective bargaining such as wages and working conditions which do not directly affect third markets and third parties...".
http://www.huffingtonpost.com/greg-tarp ... 31957.html" onclick="window.open(this.href);return false; This one is about the USA but as we are signatories as well it still applies I believe.
Under international labor law, the right to collectively bargain is considered a fundamental human right. Legislation or executive action to eliminate collective bargaining rights is, therefore, a violation of international law.

Under the Universal Declaration of Human rights (adopted in 1948 by the United Nations), to which the United States is a signatory, the right to bargain collectively is subsumed under the rights to freedom of association and the right to organize into a trade union (Articles 20 and 23). Since the Declaration has been signed and ratified by the United States it is therefore binding on state governments through the Supremacy Clause of the Constitution (Article VI, clause 2).

The right to organize and bargain collectively is explicitly covered under International Labor Organization Convention 98 adopted in 1949. While the United States has not specifically ratified ILO Convention 98, it is bound by that Convention by virtue of its membership in the ILO, as these rights are part of the ILO charter and, therefore, stand above the individual Conventions.
I think to have any chance of getting a collective agreement overturned you would have to show it was either patently unfair (difficult when membership of a union is voluntary and therefore so is non-membership), or the agreement over-rides another fundamental human right. Not sure that moving to another unit would come under either of those as long as the application of the collective agreement was fair.
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dvbuk55
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Re: Legality of vote

Post by dvbuk55 »

Just wonder who holds the floor in an office where the majority is non members or even no members.
TrueBlueTerrier
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Re: Legality of vote

Post by TrueBlueTerrier »

dvbuk55 wrote:Just wonder who holds the floor in an office where the majority is non members or even no members.
No members - the management by default.

Majority non members - in reality again the management will get what they want, but in law the collective agreement still holds.
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dvbuk55
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Re: Legality of vote

Post by dvbuk55 »

TrueBlueTerrier wrote:
dvbuk55 wrote:Just wonder who holds the floor in an office where the majority is non members or even no members.
No members - the management by default.

Majority non members - in reality again the management will get what they want, but in law the collective agreement still holds.
By collective I assume you mean ALL employees and not just union members. :hmmmm I wonder what the legality is also if a caucus of non union members felt their human rights had been infringed by not being included in a vote on working conditions and took legal advice.
aposter
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Re: Legality of vote

Post by aposter »

dvbuk55 wrote:
TrueBlueTerrier wrote:
dvbuk55 wrote:Just wonder who holds the floor in an office where the majority is non members or even no members.
No members - the management by default.

Majority non members - in reality again the management will get what they want, but in law the collective agreement still holds.
By collective I assume you mean ALL employees and not just union members. :hmmmm I wonder what the legality is also if a caucus of non union members felt their human rights had been infringed by not being included in a vote on working conditions and took legal advice.
Exactly, in an extreme example there could be one union member dictating the working conditions of the entire workforce but that is another argument, it just does not, to my mind, seem correct that one group of workers should be voting to the detriment of another, that to my mind is not collective bargaining.

For example what would the consensus be if the collective decision between RM and the union was to offer the workforce (union members) the vote in the following scenario:

Vote if you want everyone with over 10 years service to receive an extra £1 p/h pay rise whilst everyone else loses 50p p/h
TrueBlueTerrier
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Re: Legality of vote

Post by TrueBlueTerrier »

dvbuk55 wrote:
TrueBlueTerrier wrote:
dvbuk55 wrote:Just wonder who holds the floor in an office where the majority is non members or even no members.
No members - the management by default.

Majority non members - in reality again the management will get what they want, but in law the collective agreement still holds.
By collective I assume you mean ALL employees and not just union members. :hmmmm I wonder what the legality is also if a caucus of non union members felt their human rights had been infringed by not being included in a vote on working conditions and took legal advice.
No I don't mean anything - collective agreement has a legal definition http://www.emplaw.co.uk/lawguide?startpage=026009.htm" onclick="window.open(this.href);return false;
BASIC POSITION

A "collective agreement" is defined by TULRCA 1992 s.178(1)) as "any agreement or arrangement made by or on behalf of one or more trade unions and one or more employers or employers' associations and relating to one or more" of the seven matters specified in TULRCA 1992, s.178(2).

The Working Time Regulations 1998 SI 1998/1833 adopt the definition above of "collective agreement" (subject to the requirement that the union must be an independent trade union) for the purpose of validating collectively agreed variations to those regulations (see Working Time Regulations/exemptions and exclusions ) .

"Collective bargaining" means "negotiations relating to or connected with one or more of those matters" (TULRCA 1992 s.178(1)). A different definition is used for some of the purposes of the new rules introduced on 6th June 2000 by Employment Relations Act 1999 sched.1.1. As a general rule.for purposes of these new rules "collective bargaining" refers to negotiations relating to pay, hours and holidays only unless any other matters are voluntarily agreed.

The importance of all this is that the legal right to conduct collective bargaining is the essential basic feature of a recognised trade union.

In UK law, whether the terms of a collective agreement are binding as between a particular employer and a particular employee depends on the individual's contract of employment and on whether the term in question is "apt for incorporation" into individual contracts (see Anderson v Pringle of Scotland Ltd CS 1998 IRLR 64, Court of Session, South West Trains Ltd v Wightman & ors 1998 TLR 14th January 1998 for some examples of cases in which collective agreements between employers and trade unions were held to be binding on individual employees and Kaur v MG Rover Group Ltd CA 2004 reported at [2005] ICR 624 for a case in which they were not).

The European Court of Human Rights ruled in November 2008 that contrary to previous rulings on the effect of Article 11 of the European Convention on Human Rights (right to form and to join a trade union), the right to bargain collectively should be regarded nowadays as one of the essential elements inherent in the right to form trade unions ( Demir & anor v Turkey ECHR 2009 IRLR 766).

I guess the law around collective agreements can be seen as biased towards Union membership, but then the Unions have lawyers on hand to check the legality of any agreement and thats part of what the dues are for.

There is also, I submit, and argument that can be made that by electing not to join the Union you have effectively decided by choice not to enter into any vote that is affected by Collective agreements.
aposter wrote:
Exactly, in an extreme example there could be one union member dictating the working conditions of the entire workforce but that is another argument, it just does not, to my mind, seem correct that one group of workers should be voting to the detriment of another, that to my mind is not collective bargaining.
They can't - any agreement is still subject to employment law. It cannot be unfair or discriminatory - therefore it cannot be so cut and dried as for one set of workers voting for an agreement that is detrimental to another set of workers just because they are non union members. Any agreement has to be fair to both sets.
aposter wrote:For example what would the consensus be if the collective decision between RM and the union was to offer the workforce (union members) the vote in the following scenario:

Vote if you want everyone with over 10 years service to receive an extra £1 p/h pay rise whilst everyone else loses 50p p/h
There is an argument that exactly that has happened already. Basic holidays start at just over 4 weeks - after so many years it ends up at 6 weeks. So long serving posties (union and non union) already get 2 weeks pay when on holiday whilst new starters have to work them, or take a 2- 3% pay deduction to get the 6 weeks.

I suppose the question boils down to whether collective agreements are fairer than the alternative. I would say that in general, and whilst acknowledging there are weaknesses and problems with the system and its application (many outlined above), it's usually fairer, and is certainly less messier than any other option.

At least if a collective agreement is broken by the company when the Union voted it in then they can oppose it you could get support from the Union on a national basis. A local collective agreement without any union involvement, or one voted in by a majority of non union members, would not get the same level of backing if the company decided to overturn it at short notice.

So yes collective agreements can be seen as unfair if you cannot vote in them, and they affect your working life I grant you that. But that is a direct consequence of deciding not to join the Union in a company which recognises collective bargaining. All choices have consequences, don't join the Union (or leave) and save £3 a week but have no voting rights in agreements. Or be able to have a say in agreements, pay rises etc at a cost of £3. The choice is that stark and is freely made by everyone.
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clashcityrocker
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Re: Legality of vote

Post by clashcityrocker »

Did non-union membes get a vote on BT 2010? No.
So why would anyone assume they would have a say on any vote that effects its implementation?

They made their bed, it isn't an infringement of their human rights when they have to lie in it.
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