Stage 1 question

[Kniteforce]

Hi guys

Hoping for a bt of advice / clarity! I was issued with a stage 1 mid February 2011. The date of issue by my manager was in mid February from the paperwork.

Since then I have had an absence of 4 days in May 2011 and one of 5 days in December 2011. Am I right in thinking that I am now clear of all stages as the 2 absences were over 6 months apart and I'm now in the clear? The 1 absence of 4 days or less bit at the end was confusing me but was pretty certain that was only relevant for a stage 2 warning? Was just panicing that I was still on a stage 1 as a result of that wording but didn't think you could still be on a stage 1 over 12 months after.

Many thanks in advance for the advice!

[Stormproof]

Stage 1 - 4 absences or 14 days in a 12 month period. So it appears you are clear of a Stage

[Kniteforce]

Thanks for taking the time to reply mate.

I was on a stage 1 from mid feb 2011 and had 2 absences in a year but over 6 months apart and under 10 days each. Seeing as I never received a stage 2 in the 12 months since stage 1 issue, I take it that means I'm in the clear and off my stage 1?

The wording of the agreement was a bit confusing for me!

[Lincox]

I would be asking for written confirmation that no longer on a stage 1.

[Kniteforce]

Thanks for replying.

Yeah think I will try and get that in writing from H.R asap. Thought if you didn't trigger a further stage in the 12 months from issue it dropped off, pretty sure you can't be on a stage longer than 12 months just questioning myself as the stage has been playing on my mind a lot.